The statement is **false**.
If the radius of the base of a right circular cone is \(r\), then: \[ πr^2 = y \] Also, \[ \cfrac{1}{3} πr^2 z = x \Rightarrow \cfrac{1}{3} yz = x \quad [Since \(πr^2 = y\)] \Rightarrow \cfrac{yz}{x} = 3 \Rightarrow \cfrac{x}{yz} = \cfrac{1}{3} \]