Q.If \(x ∝ y\) and \(x ∝ z\), then show that \(x ∝ (y - z)\).

\(\because x \propto y, \, \therefore y \propto x\) i.e., \(y = k_1x\) [where \(k_1\) is a non-zero constant] Again, \(\because x \propto z, \, \therefore z \propto x\) i.e., \(z = k_2x\) [where \(k_2\) is a non-zero constant] \(\therefore y - z = k_1x - k_2x\) i.e., \((y - z) = (k_1 - k_2)x\) i.e., \((y - z) \propto x\) [since \(k_1, k_2\) are constants] \(\therefore x \propto (y - z)\) [Proved]
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