Q.If \(a \propto b\), \(b \propto \cfrac{1}{c}\), and \(c \propto d\), then what will be the proportional relationship between \(a\) and \(d\)?

Given: \(a \propto b\) ⇒ \(a = k_1 b\), where \(k_1\) is a non-zero constant \(b \propto \cfrac{1}{c}\) ⇒ \(b = \cfrac{k_2}{c}\), where \(k_2\) is a non-zero constant \(c \propto d\) ⇒ \(c = k_3 d\), where \(k_3\) is a non-zero constant Now, \(a = k_1 b = \cfrac{k_1 k_2}{c} = \cfrac{k_1 k_2}{k_3 d}\) ⇒ \(ad = \cfrac{k_1 k_2}{k_3}\), which is a constant (since \(k_1, k_2, k_3\) are constants) ∴ \(a \propto \cfrac{1}{d}\) That means \(a\) and \(d\) are inversely proportional.
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