Q.If \(a\) and \(b\) vary directly, then \(\cfrac{a}{b}\) will be constant.
The statement is false.
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If \(a \propto \cfrac{1}{b}\),
then \(a = \cfrac{k}{b}\) where \(k\) is a non-zero constant of variation.
\[
\therefore \cfrac{a}{b} = \cfrac{k}{b^2} \ne \text{constant}
\]